All things considered, the 2020-21 Cleveland Cavaliers have been a positive story, posting a 10-12 record and operating at a competitive level on the defensive end. However, a well-regarded veteran has not been involved in the proceedings and, on Tuesday, word broke that Matthew Dellavedova could be pondering retirement in the near future.
Joe Vardon and Kelsey Russo of The Athletic report that retirement is “on the table, if not likely” for the 30-year-old Dellavedova at this juncture, even while noting that no definitive decision has been made. Dellavedova suffered a concussion in mid-December and, though nearly two months have passed, the report indicates that he is “experiencing problematic symptoms that are preventing him from ramping up workouts in any real capacity.”
It should be noted that Dellavedova reportedly “doesn’t want to stop playing yet,” presumably leaving the door open for a return to the hardwood. At the same time, concussion issues are, of course, quite serious and caution is advised as a result.
Dellavedova was a member of the 2016 championship team in Cleveland before spending two-plus years with the Milwaukee Bucks. He then returned midway through the 2018-19 season, and Dellavedova appeared in 57 games for the Cavs in 2019-20. Dellavedova is perhaps best known for his willingness to jump into the fray at any situation, but he was also a steady-handed and valuable guard for the Cavaliers, and the NBA community will undoubtedly be rooting for a return to full health as soon as possible.